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The first step a pension fund should take before beginning to invest is to


A) establish investment objectives.
B) develop a list of investment managers with superior records to interview.
C) establish asset allocation guidelines.
D) decide between active and passive management.

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Which of the following are commonly thought to be good general investment guidelines?I) Don't try to outguess the market, buying and holding generally pays off.II) Diversify investments to spread risk.III) Investments should be highly concentrated in your company's stock.IV) 401K money is best placed in money market accounts because risk is very low.V) Investments should be allocated to stocks, bonds, and money-market funds.


A) I, III, and IV
B) I, II, and V
C) II, IV, and V
D) III, IV, and V
E) I, II, IV, and V

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Deferral of capital gains tax does notI) mean that the investor doesn't need to pay taxes until the investment is sold.II) allow the investment to grow at a faster rate.III) mean that you might escape the capital gains tax if you live long enough.IV) provide a tax shelter for investors.


A) III
B) II
C) I, II, and V
D) II, III, and IV

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The governance section of an Investment Policy Statement for individual investors typically contains


A) assigning the responsibility for determining investment policy.
B) the review process for the IPS.
C) assigning the responsibility for risk management.
D) the review process for the IPS and assigning the responsibility for risk management.
E) All of the options are correct.

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The longest time horizons are likely to be set by


A) banks.
B) property and casualty insurance companies.
C) pension funds.
D) banks and pension funds.
E) property and casualty insurance companies and pension funds.

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A fully-funded pension plan can invest surplus assets in equities provided it reduces the proportion in equities when the value of the fund drops near the accumulated benefit obligation. This strategy is referred to as


A) immunization.
B) hedging.
C) diversification.
D) contingent immunization.
E) overfunding.

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A remainderman is


A) a stockbroker who remained working on Wall Street after the 1987 crash.
B) an employee of a trustee.
C) one who receives interest and dividend income from a trust during their lifetime.
D) one who receives the principal of a trust when it is dissolved.

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The optimal portfolio on the efficient frontier for a given investor depends on


A) the investor's degree-of-risk tolerance.
B) the coefficient, A, which is a measure of risk aversion.
C) the investor's required rate of return.
D) the investor's degree-of-risk tolerance and the investor's required rate of return.
E) the investor's degree-of-risk tolerance and the coefficient, A, which is a measure of risk aversion.

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Chris Silvers is 39 years old and has accumulated $128,000 in his self-directed defined contribution pension plan. Each year he contributes $2,500 to the plan, and his employer contributes an equal amount. Chris thinks he will retire at age 62 and figures he will live to age 86. The plan allows for two types of investments. One offers a 4% risk-free real rate of return. The other offers an expected return of 11% and has a standard deviation of 37%. Chris now has 25% of his money in the risk-free investment and 75% in the risky investment. He plans to continue saving at the same rate and keep the same proportions invested in each of the investments. His salary will grow at the same rate as inflation. How much can Chris expect to have in his risky account at retirement?


A) $1,400,326
B) $1,309,529
C) $1,543,781
D) $1,224,651
E) $1,345,886

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Assume that at retirement you have accumulated $500,000 in a variable annuity contract. The assumed investment return is 6%, and your life expectancy is 15 years. If the first year's actual investment return is 8%, what is the starting benefit payment?


A) $30,000.00
B) $33,333.33
C) $51,481.38
D) $52,452.73
E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

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The investment horizon is


A) the investor's expected age at death.
B) the starting date for establishing investment constraints.
C) based on the investor's risk tolerance.
D) the date at which the portfolio is expected to be fully or partially liquidated.

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The standard by which broker-dealers must select investments for their clients is __________________?


A) clients' interests
B) brokers' interest
C) suitability
D) optimal return

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The fiduciary standard for investment advisors requires they must select investments for their clients which are classified as __________________?


A) clients' interests
B) brokers' interest
C) suitability
D) optimal return

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Alex Moore is 43 years old and has accumulated $78,000 in his self-directed defined contribution pension plan. Each year he contributes $1,500 to the plan, and his employer contributes an equal amount. Alex thinks he will retire at age 60 and figures he will live to age 83. The plan allows for two types of investments. One offers a 4% risk-free real rate of return. The other offers an expected return of 10% and has a standard deviation of 34%. Alex now has 40% of his money in the risk-free investment and 60% in the risky investment. He plans to continue saving at the same rate and keep the same proportions invested in each of the investments. His salary will grow at the same rate as inflation. How much can Alex be sure of having in the safe account at retirement?


A) $59,473
B) $62,557
C) $78,943
D) $89,212
E) $104,632

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Which of the following are commonly thought to be bad general investment guidelines?I) Don't try to outguess the market, buying and holding generally pays off.II) Diversify investments to spread risk.III) Investments should be highly concentrated in your company's stock.IV) 401K money is best placed in money market accounts because risk is very low.V) Investments should be allocated to stocks, bonds, and money-market funds.


A) I, III, and IV
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, IV, and V
D) III and IV
E) I, II, IV, and V

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__________ can be used to create a perfect CPI-measured inflation hedge.


A) Gold
B) Real estate
C) TIPS
D) The S&P 500 Index
E) None of the options are correct.

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An important benefit of Keogh plans is that


A) they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits.
B) they are protected against inflation.
C) they are automatically insured by the Federal government.
D) they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits, and they are protected against inflation.
E) they are not taxable until funds are withdrawn as benefits, and they are automatically insured by the Federal government.

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The objectives of personal trusts normally are __________ in scope than those of individual investors, and personal trust managers typically are __________ than individual investors.


A) broader; more risk averse
B) broader; less risk averse
C) more limited; more risk averse
D) more limited; less risk averse

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The risk-management section of an Investment Policy Statement for individual investors typically contains


A) relevant constraints.
B) other relevant considerations.
C) performance measurement accountabilities, metrics for risk measurement, and the rebalancing process.
D) relevant constraints and other relevant considerations.
E) All of the options are correct.

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Target-date retirement funds


A) change their asset allocation as time passes.
B) are a simple, but useful, strategy.
C) function much like hedge funds.
D) change their asset allocation as time passes and are a simple, but useful, strategy.
E) All of the options are correct.

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