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To execute a command in Linux while in the directory where it is located, and be sure you are only running that particular copy, what would you use in front of the executable name?


A) ./
B) ../
C) ..\
D) .\

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Which command-line argument can you use with Snort to read a previously created file?


A) -O
B) -o
C) -p
D) -r

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Cisco Email Security is ideal for which type of customer?


A) customers who need sensitive data to remain onsite
B) customers whose expectations are set
C) customers who do not need cloud services
D) customers who want to move services to the cloud

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Which output method is the fastest for Snort?


A) unified2
B) database
C) binary (tcpdump)
D) CSV

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Which statement is true concerning static NAT?


A) Static NAT supports only TCP traffic.
B) Static NAT is normally deployed for outbound traffic only.
C) Static NAT provides a one-to-one mapping between IP addresses.
D) Static NAT provides a many-to-one mapping between IP addresses.

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What does protocol normalization do?


A) compares evaluated packets to normal, daily network-traffic patterns
B) removes any protocol-induced or protocol-allowable ambiguities
C) compares a packet to related traffic from the same session, to determine whether the packet is out of sequence
D) removes application layer data, whether or not it carries protocol-induced anomalies, so that packet headers can be inspected more accurately for signs of abuse

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Which statement about two-step authentication is true?


A) It is the ability to use two separate passwords.
B) It is the ability to enable biometric authentication.
C) It is the ability to have a passphrase sent to a mobile device.
D) It is the ability to use a verification code in conjunction with the correct username and password.

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What is the maximum timeout value for a browser session?


A) 60 minutes
B) 120 minutes
C) 1024 minutes
D) 1440 minutes

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In a FireAMP Private Cloud installation, an administrator uses which server to configure the FireAMP Private Cloud properties?


A) opadmin.<your domain>.com
B) console.<your domain>.com
C) cloud.<your domain>.com
D) aws.<your domain>.com

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How does the Device Trajectory feature work?


A) It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
B) It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
C) It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
D) It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
E) It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.

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What must you do to produce ASCII-formatted output from Snort?


A) Do nothing because Snort produces ASCII output by default.
B) Use the -K ascii switch when you start Snort from the command line.
C) Compile Snort with the -K ascii flag in the configure command.
D) Use a third-party application to convert native Snort output to ASCII.

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Why do companies need the quickly scalable Cisco Secure Data Center virtualization and cloud technology solution?


A) Fifty-six percent of employees who leave a company take private information with them.
B) Competitors are gaining a 33 percent market share.
C) Administrators are allowing a growing number of BYOD devices.
D) Staff is unable to keep up with newer data center technology.
E) Provisioning time for data centers has decreased from eight weeks to 15 minutes.
F) Management is expected to decrease IT budgets by 25 percent.

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Which statement about implementing DAQ is true?


A) It is a shell script that works on any Linux platform.
B) It must be compiled separately.
C) You must obtain it from Sourceforge.
D) It is not open source.

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Which protocol operates below the network layer?


A) UDP
B) ICMP
C) ARP
D) DNS

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Context Explorer can be accessed by a subset of user roles. Which predefined user role is not valid for FireSIGHT event access?


A) Administrator
B) Intrusion Administrator
C) Security Analyst
D) Security Analyst (Read-Only)

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Which two features of Cisco ISE contribute to guest access management? (Choose two.)


A) employee-sponsored network access
B) faster device onboarding
C) guest access and activity tracking
D) accelerated security options
E) site-to-site VPNs
F) clientless network access

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What is the default command-line switch configuration, if you run a connector installation with no parameters?


A) <installer package name> /desktopicon 0 /startmenu 1 /contextmenu 1 /skipdfc 0 /skiptetra 0
B) <installer package name> /desktopicon 1 /startmenu 0 /contextmenu 0 /skipdfc 0 /skiptetra 0
C) <installer package name> /desktopicon 0 /startmenu 0 /contextmenu 0 /skipdfc 1 /skiptetra 1
D) <installer package name> /desktopicon 1 /startmenu 0 /contextmenu 0 /skipdfc 0 /skiptetra 1

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Cisco Content Security integrates seamlessly with existing security and network infrastructures. This statement describes which Cisco value?


A) time-to-value
B) protection
C) control
D) scalability
E) flexibility
F) agility

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Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)


A) URL filtering
B) retrospective security
C) attack chain weaving
D) breach hunting
E) trajectory
F) behavioral indications of compromise

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The current Cisco comprehensive framework solutions are divided into which three categories? (Choose three.)


A) Content Security
B) Cloud Security
C) Network Security
D) Access Security
E) Data Center Security
F) Internet Security
G) Advanced Malware Protection

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