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A Long futures positions in the S&P500 has the effect of ____ portfolio exposure to equities, while short futures positions in the S&P500 has the effect of ____ portfolio exposure to equities.


A) Increasing, decreasing.
B) Decreasing, increasing,
C) Increasing, increasing.
D) Decreasing, decreasing.
E) None of the above.

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The goal of a passive portfolio is to track the index as closely as possible.

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Sharpe (1991) study reveals that active managers typically outperform passive managers even after transaction costs and fees.

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The asset allocation strategy that separately examines capital market conditions and the investor's objectives and constraints is called


A) Integrated asset allocation.
B) Tactical asset allocation.
C) Sector rotation.
D) Strategic asset allocation.
E) Insured asset allocation.

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Style investing involves constructing portfolios in such a way to capture one or more of the characteristics of equity securities.

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In ____ asset allocation, the investor's risk tolerance and constraints are assumed to be constant over time. However, changes in capital market conditions result in changes in the portfolio's stock-bond mix.


A) Integrated
B) Strategic
C) Tactical
D) Insured
E) None of the above.

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A contrarian investment strategy is based on the belief that


A) Stock returns are mean reverting.
B) The best time to buy is when other investors are bullish.
C) Rising stocks will continue to rise.
D) Passive management is preferred to active management.
E) A long/short portfolio will outperform a long only portfolio.

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A

Growth oriented investors focus on the price component of the Price/Earnings ratio.

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In equity portfolio management, tracking error occurs when


A) The managed portfolio outperforms the benchmark portfolio.
B) The managed portfolio under performs the benchmark portfolio.
C) The return volatility of the managed portfolio is positively correlated with the return volatility of the benchmark portfolio.
D) The return volatility of the managed portfolio is negatively correlated with the return volatility of the benchmark portfolio.
E) The return volatility of the managed portfolio is not correlated with the return volatility of the benchmark portfolio.

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An investor focusing on a growth strategy does all of the following except:


A) Focuses on the earnings per share (EPS) component on the P/E ratio
B) Seek out investments with higher expected growth in earnings.
C) Implicitly assume that the P/E ratio will grow over the near term.
D) Focuses on the current and future economic "story" of a company.
E) All of the above statements are true.

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C

An advantage of quadratic programming is that it relies on historical correlations.

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Which of the following statements is false?


A) A manager's choice to align with an investment style communicates information to clients about the investor's focus, area of expertise, and stock evaluation methods.
B) An investment manager's style cannot be used as a basis for measuring the manager's performance relative to a benchmark.
C) Style identification allows an investor to select investment managers that allow his overall portfolio to be properly diversified.
D) Style investing allows control of the total portfolio to be shared between the investment managers and a knowledgeable sponsor.
E) None of the above (all are true statements)

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Which of the following is not considered a mainstream investment style?


A) Value
B) Growth
C) Market-oriented
D) Benchmark
E) Small-cap

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A fundamental tenet of the contrarian investment strategy is the notion that


A) All stock returns are mean reverting.
B) Certain stocks outperform others during different stages of the business cycle.
C) Value stock investing is superior to growth stock investing.
D) Growth stock investing is superior to value stock investing.
E) None of the above.

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Which of the following is considered a strategy for timing the market and adding value to actively managed portfolios?


A) Time the markets by shifting between different types of securities based on market forecasts and estimated risk premiums.
B) Shift funds between the various equity sectors, industries, investment styles, etc., in order to take advantage of the "hot" concept before the remainder of the market does.
C) Individual stockpicking in order to buy low and sell high.
D) Choices a and b only
E) All of the above

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It does not make economic sense for portfolio managers to try to "time" between different investment styles.

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False

Which of the following statements concerning active equity portfolio management strategies is true?


A) The goal of active equity portfolio management is to earn a portfolio return that exceeds the return of a passive benchmark portfolio (net of transaction costs) on a risk-adjusted basis.
B) An actively managed equity portfolio has lower total transaction costs.
C) An actively managed equity portfolio has lower risk than the passive benchmark.
D) A key to success for an actively managed equity portfolio is to maximize trading activity.
E) All of the above.

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Exhibit 15-1 USE THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION TO ANSWER THE NEXT QUESTION(S) A portfolio manager is trying to establish a strategic asset allocation for two different clients, Bob Bowman and Tom Luck. Bob Bowman has a risk tolerance factor of 22 and Tom Luck has a risk tolerance factor of 6. The characteristics of the three model portfolios under consideration are provided in the table below.  Asset Mix  Partfalia  Stack  Bond  Exgected  Retun  Variance  A 0.750.250.120.45 B 0.40.60.080.16 C 0.30.70.050.06\begin{array}{c}\underline {\text { Asset Mix }}\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\\\begin{array} { c c c c c } \text { Partfalia } & \text { Stack } & \text { Bond } & \begin{array} { c } \text { Exgected } \\\text { Retun }\end{array} & \text { Variance } \\\hline \text { A } & 0.75 & 0.25 & 0.12 & 0.45 \\\text { B } & 0.4 & 0.6 & 0.08 & 0.16 \\\text { C } & 0.3 & 0.7 & 0.05 & 0.06\end{array}\end{array} -Refer to Exhibit 15-1. The expected utilities of Portfolios A, B and C for Tom Luck are


A) Portfolio A = 9.95, Portfolio B = 7.27, Portfolio C = 4.73
B) Portfolio A = 4.5, Portfolio B = 5.33, Portfolio C = 4.0
C) Portfolio A = 7.95, Portfolio B = 5.33, Portfolio C = 4.73
D) Portfolio A = 3.5, Portfolio B = 7.27, Portfolio C = 4.73
E) Portfolio A = 5.33, Portfolio B = 7.27, Portfolio C = 6.75

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Which of the following is not a technique for constructing a passive index portfolio?


A) Full replication
B) Sampling
C) Quadratic programming
D) Linear programming
E) None of the above (that is, all are techniques for constructing a passive index portfolio)

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Which of the following is not considered an active management strategy?


A) Sector rotation
B) Use of factor models
C) Quantitative screens
D) Full replication
E) Linear programming

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